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Hi,
I have a web service.
In certain scenarios, I want to send specific status Codes back to the client.
I tried using the context.Response.statusCode but it doesn't work.
Anyone knows how can I accomplish that?
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Always include the relevant code in your question.
ThetaClear wrote: I tried using the context.Response.statusCode but it doesn't work. how? you got any error? debug it. Update your question with error details.
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I just wrote something like that:
Context.Response.StatusCode = 422;
and expected to get 422 on the client but I got 200
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I went through this article.
The writer says that he used an httpModule to change the header status code.
He also wrote that he could do that just by changing the statusCode in the .aspx page itself (which I did but with no luck)
Is there some kind of a restriction from changing the statusCode in my web service?
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It works now.
It was something stupid that I didn't pay attention to.
The Response.StatusCode = number; does work.
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Well if your input is JSON
then you just send back JSON with a status code
If it's XML, then you send back XML with a status code field
So on my web applications that access a web service in JSON, I always send back a JSON formatted status code to let the Jquery or JavaScript know the final result.
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hi everyone, i have been trying to create reports at runtime using crystal reports and vb.net, i want the user to select the fields/columns he wants to view in the report and choose as many fields as he wants.i have been searching for such but got no straight forwad answer. can anyone kindly help with such a solution
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Firstlly you should create a formula field for showing the data into the report.
then drop that particular field on ther report section
after that you can pass the parameter like This :
string FromMonth = Convert.ToString(ddlYear.SelectedDate.Value.ToShortDateString() + " " + "To" + " " + ddlToYear.SelectedDate.Value.ToShortDateString());
ReportDocument rptDoc = new ReportDocument();
rptDoc.Load(Server.MapPath("");
rptDoc.SetDataSource(dsReport);
rptDoc.DataDefinition.FormulaFields["FromYear"].Text = "'" + FromMonth + "'";
CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = rptDoc;
CrystalReportViewer1.DataBind();
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Hi.
I have an application consists of 2 textboxes, 2 buttons, a modalpopup extender.
Button1 and Textbox1 is in a modalpopupextender that is shown when a button is click (not shown here)
I added an OnKeyPress event on my textbox (Textbox1) on Page Load that will execute a javascript on client side code which calls a button (Button1) click event.]
protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e)
{
if (!Page.IsPostBack)
{
this.TextBox1.Attributes.Add("onKeyPress", "doClick('" + Button1.ClientID + "',event)");
}
}
This is the Javascript codes, this will call and execute the click event of Button1
function doClick(buttonName, e) {
var key;
if (window.event)
key = window.event.keyCode;
else
key = e.which;
if (key == 13) {
var btn = document.getElementById(buttonName);
if (btn != null) {
btn.click();
event.keyCode = 0
}
}
};
This is the Button1 Click event
protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e)
{
if (Textbox1.Text.ToString() == "ITDevt")
{
Button2.Visible = true;
Textbox2.Visible = false;
Button2.Visible=true;
Button1.Visible=false;
popup.Show();
}
else
{
popup.Hide();
Textbox1.Text = "";
}
}
Assume that the modalpopupextender is shown, so I entered a text in Textbox1 and presses Enter key on keyboard (so the OnKeyPress event is rendered).
When I trace the Button1_Click event, the code block runs. But the popup (modalpopupextender) hides.
Can you help me show again the modalpopupextender and hide Button1 and Textbox1 then show Button2 and Textbox2?
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Hello , I need to copy the structure of a gridview programatically to an another new grid view , is that even possible ?
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Possibly you're talking about this[^]
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Hello !
I am building a MVC 5 app in which there will be 4 types of users . (Admin , HR Member , Managers , Employee) . I already created the views and the controllers for each type .
I want to give each manager access to certain departments , and the employee access to data according to his employeeID value .
After reading several articles on the Internet about this topic , I suppose I have to assign each user type a role and each department/employeeID a permission , but I have no clue on how to do that .
Can someone explain to me how to implement this ? I mention that the Identity Framework installed on the project is at version 1.0 .
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You need to create Roles & Permissions. You need to create a table (like "Roles") that store the Roles
In your app there is 4 Roles
1- Admin
2- HR Member
3- Managers
4- Employee
And need to store all the permissions in a Table (like "Permission" table).
for each Role you need to map the permissions means to specify what are the permission available for Admin, HR Member, Managers & Employee. To do this you need to create a table (like RolesPermission) that contains the Id of Role and also the Ids of Permission that "One To Many" mapping. like
ID RoleId PermissionId
1 1 1
2 1 2
3 1 4
4 2 4
5 2 5
... ... ...
After that you just need to assign the Role to the users. And where the user can access resources or not You just need to get Permissions of that user and check the permission that available to access the resources. If available then give access otherwise don't give access.
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Ok , in other words I should have three classes :
Role
Permission
RolePermission(in which I should include two objects , one of type Role , and one of type Permission)
And I should link the RolePermission to the ApplicationUser , then apply the migration .
Is that correct ?
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Yes
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Ok , I got stuck again .
So I created the classes :
Role :
public class Role
{
public Role() { }
public Role(string name, int id):this()
{
this.RoleId = id;
this.Name = name;
}
[Key]
[Required]
public virtual int RoleId { get; set; }
public virtual string Name { get; set; }
}
Permission :
public Permission()
{ }
public Permission(string name,int id):this()
{
this.Name=name;
this.Id = id;
}
[Key]
[Required]
public virtual int Id { get; set; }
public virtual string Name { get; set; }
}
RolePermission :
public class RolePermission
{
public Role Role { get; set; }
public Permission Group { get; set; }
[Required]
public int RoleGroupId { get; set; }
public RolePermission() { }
}
I updated the ApplicationUser class
public class ApplicationUser : IdentityUser
{
public ApplicationUser()
: base()
{
this.Permission=new HashSet<RolePermission>();
}
[Required]
public string Name { get; set; }
public virtual ICollection<RolePermission> Permission { get; set; }
}
Is this correct up to this point ?
I suppose I should modify the ApplicationDbContext , which , up to this point , looks like this :
public class ApplicationDbContext : IdentityDbContext<ApplicationUser>
{
public ApplicationDbContext()
: base("DefaultConnection")
{
}
}
What changes should I do ?
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Yes you are right. You should use this one
public class ApplicationDbContext : IdentityDbContext<ApplicationUser>
{
public ApplicationDbContext()
: base("DefaultConnection")
{
}
}
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It worked . Thank you very much !
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hi . i have two website ballychohan.com and baljinderchohan.com. both are in php. i want to integrate both in single domain. what to do
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gauravkumar02 wrote: both are in php
And what does that have to do with ASP.NET?
Also, you might want to get a native English speaker to proof-read your text. Your site is full of basic grammatical and punctuation errors, which gives an extremely poor first impression - particularly for a company which claims to be based in the UK!
And for that matter, why would you want to combine the website of "a leading IT company" with that of a supplier of "Indian Cuisine in the UK"?
"These people looked deep within my soul and assigned me a number based on the order in which I joined."
- Homer
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... and the "Testimonials" are from companies that don't exist.
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Hm, perhaps that was an SEO attempt? But he failed to set up proper links to his web sites...
And it could be an interesting combination: buy a webhosting package, get a pappadum for free.
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