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A man gets sent a credit card contract[^], scans it into his computer, changes the terms to 0% interest at no limit. Also inserts clauses that allows him to fine the bank every time they don't honour a transaction and then the bank tries to cancel the agreement because they 'didn't read' the terms - and fail.
(I know it's from 2013, but I only just heard about it)
The story is well above four years old, so I would assume that the case is settled by now.
We are speaking about a trial with a possible high amount of $$$$ as result... and besides... american justice.
Are you sure 4 years is that much?
If something has a solution... Why do we have to worry about?. If it has no solution... For what reason do we have to worry about?
Help me to understand what I'm saying, and I'll explain it better to you
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It would be fraud if the contract came pre-signed by the bank and he altered it. He sent them a contract which they assumed was the same they sent him but didn't check.
If there is a communication where he stated that he sent them back the contract with the required signature then it would be eligible for a fraud lawsuit, or if in the instructions attached to the contract there was the obligation to not alter it except for the require signatures before sending it back.
But they received the copy and later signed it - so there is very little which the bank can grab.
Programming today is a race between software engineers striving to build bigger and better idiot-proof programs, and the Universe trying to produce bigger and better idiots. So far, the Universe is winning