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Have your cluster manager review
Create or Configure an Availability Group Listener (SQL Server) | Microsoft Docs
In a powershell admin window, run the following command to get a listing of RegisterAllProvidersIP
Get-ClusterResource "Network" | Get-ClusterParameter | Where-Object {$.name -eq "RegisterAllProvidersIP" -and $.Value -ne "0"}
If that setting is not 0 then all IPs associated with the cluster resources are published to DNS.
Common sense is admitting there is cause and effect and that you can exert some control over what you understand.
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Interesting, I've setup a couple of Availability groups for applications but never had any issues (well once I got the devs to stop trying to use the IPs).
I wonder if the issues you faced are related to
Create or Configure an Availability Group Listener (SQL Server) | Microsoft Docs
[Snippet]
Issue: If your Availability Group or Failover Cluster Instance has a listener name (known as the network name or Client Access Point in the WSFC Cluster Manager) depending on multiple IP addresses from different subnets, and you are using either ADO.NET with .NET Framework 3.5SP1 or SQL Native Client 11.0 OLEDB, potentially 50% of your client-connection requests to the availability group listener will hit a connection timeout.
Workarounds: We recommend that you do one of the following tasks.
If do not have the permission to manipulate cluster resources, change your connection timeout to 30 seconds (this value results in a 20-second TCP timeout period plus a 10-second buffer).
Pros: If a cross-subnet failover occurs, client recovery time is short.
Cons: Half of the client connections will take more than 20 seconds
If you have the permission to manipulate cluster resources, the more recommended approach is to set the network name of your availability group listener to RegisterAllProvidersIP=0. For more information, see "RegisterAllProvidersIP Setting” later in this section.
Pros: You do not need to increase your client-connection timeout value.
Cons: If a cross-subnet failover occurs, the client recovery time could be 15 minutes or longer, depending on your HostRecordTTL setting and the setting of your cross-site DNS/AD replication schedule.[/Snippet]
In all likely hood the issue was the RegisterAllProvidersIP. If the HA Group is running in a multi subnet cluster. Then for every Node in the HA group its IP is published to DNS, So if there are 5 nodes that it can live on, there are five different IPs listed in DNS. Traversing them all can take some time to find the right one currently active.
Easy fix, set RegisterAllProvidersIP to 0.
Common sense is admitting there is cause and effect and that you can exert some control over what you understand.
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Imagine this pseudo-code:
SP_WRITE_MESSAGE
INSERT INTO MSG
SP_WRITE_COURSE
INSERT INTO COURSE
SP_WRITE_RESPONSE
IF(@SOME_COMPUTED_VALUE = 0)
BEGIN
RAISERROR('Some error message', 16, 1)
RETURN
END
EXEC SP_WRITE_MESSAGE
EXEC SP_WRITE_COURSE
Now there is an FK error in SP_WRITE_COURSE and I can see it (and fix) when running SP_WRITE_RESPONSE from SSMS, but running from the application (IIS hosted) with the same parameters I get 'Some error message', even I can see that SP_WRITE_MESSAGE executed...
Anyone?
Skipper: We'll fix it.
Alex: Fix it? How you gonna fix this?
Skipper: Grit, spit and a whole lotta duct tape.
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The return statement is never reached, because the raiserror exits the statement block.
So you should either add an else statement or add try and catch blocks. And if you use SqlServer 2012 or newer you should also consider using throw instead of raiserror.
You should also be careful with adding the sp_ prefix to your stored procedures, it doesn't mean "stored procedure".
Is the sp_ prefix still a no-no? - SQLPerformance.com[^]
This post should also be taken with a grain of salt, my brain is still pretty well baked.
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It was true, but the RAISERROR statement itself never reached as the if before it resolves to FALSE...
Pay attention to the flow:
1. IF is FALSE
2. Does EXEC SP_WRITE_MESSAGE with success (can see the record in DB)
3. Does EXEC SP_WRITE_COURSE and fails. This is the point of interest... Running from SSMS I receive the expected FK violation error, running from ASP.NET (C#) I receive 'Some error message'...
And I do not prefix my stored procedures SP_ in real life, just done it here to identify them as SPs... 
Skipper: We'll fix it.
Alex: Fix it? How you gonna fix this?
Skipper: Grit, spit and a whole lotta duct tape.
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Which means the IF behaves differently in the two environments.
One common difference between SSMS and dotNet connection is the environment settings. The most interesting in this case is probably the ARITHABORT setting. It's normally ON in SSMS and OFF in a client connection.
Try to set ARITHABORT ON or OFF in your code to check if there is a difference in behavoiur.
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Jörgen Andersson wrote: The return statement is never reached, because the raiserror exits the statement block.
If the RAISERROR statement is executed, neither of the EXEC calls will be reached either. There's no need for ELSE blocks. 
"These people looked deep within my soul and assigned me a number based on the order in which I joined."
- Homer
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Don't you need errorlevel 20 or above to terminate batch?
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Looking at the documentation[^], a severity of 20 to 25 will not only terminate the batch; it will terminate the connection, and write an error to the error and application logs.
It's not entirely clear, but as far as I can see, a severity of 11 to 19 will terminate the batch (or transfer to the CATCH block), but leave the connection intact.
"These people looked deep within my soul and assigned me a number based on the order in which I joined."
- Homer
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It certainly is unclear. So I tested by creating a couple of procedures.
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.SubSP1
AS
BEGIN
PRINT 'Start SubSP1'
RAISERROR('Some Error', 16,1) WITH LOG
PRINT 'End SubSP1'
END
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.SubSP2
AS
BEGIN
PRINT 'Inside SubSP2'
END
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.MainSP
AS
BEGIN
PRINT 'Start MainSP'
EXEC dbo.SubSP1
EXEC dbo.SubSP2
PRINT 'End MainSP'
END
GO
Running the MainSP results in:
Start MainSP
Start SubSP1
Msg 50000, Level 16, State 1, Procedure SubSP1, Line 6
Some Error
End SubSP1
Inside SubSP2
End MainSP This does not stop the execution at all, Neither on statement, scope, batch or connection level.
Changing the errorlevel to 17 results in:
Start MainSP
Start SubSP1
End SubSP1
Inside SubSP2
End MainSP
Msg 50000, Level 17, State 1, Procedure SubSP1, Line 5
Some Error Still doesn't stop the execution, but note the difference in where the error message is printed.
I suspect there will be some real differences between the errorlevels if I add TRY-CATCH or more probably a transaction.
Errorlevel 19 or higher should stop the execution of the current batch according to Database Engine Error Severities | Microsoft Docs[^] but it doesn't.
Errorlevel 20 and above closes connection as expected from the manual.
Couldn't be bothered to check any further. I've proved myself wrong and thereby only proven that one shouldn't try to answer questions on New Years day.
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Kornfeld Eliyahu Peter wrote: with the same parameters
One possibility of course is that you are not in fact using the same parameters.
You didn't mention but presumably in both test cases you are using exactly same database instance (not a copy) and that you have verified that you are using the same instance.
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Same DB instance, same parameters, same error - only that I see the wrong error from code...
Skipper: We'll fix it.
Alex: Fix it? How you gonna fix this?
Skipper: Grit, spit and a whole lotta duct tape.
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Then trace it while running it through ASP.Net.
There are two kinds of people in the world: those who can extrapolate from incomplete data.
There are only 10 types of people in the world, those who understand binary and those who don't.
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https:
I tried the link above but receiving a syntax error, my is easier then that one.
I have datetime, temperature, and humidity written in a table called tempdata.
I would like to have trigger that if value is above 65 for temperature (float), write to a different table or database called test.
Then email out when test is modified.
I've been trying phpmyadmin because I'm not good with command line.
I have phpmyadmin 4.5.4
mysql ver 14.14 distrib 5.7.20
python 2.7.12
Ubuntu mate 1.16.2
Gnome 2
Raspberry pi 2
Thank You
CREATE TRIGGER TemperatureHigh
AFTER INSERT
ON RawTemperature FOR EACH ROW
BEGIN
IF (new.temperature > 65
THEN
INSERT INTO `test`;
END IF;
END
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brian1210 wrote: receiving a syntax error
In what line is the error detected?
Isn't it the problem with "open" bracket without the "close" one here:
IF (new.temperature > 65
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Your INSERT statement does not look complete.
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You have already posted this in QA:
Trigger value > ? write in different table[^]
Your question was incomplete there too.
"These people looked deep within my soul and assigned me a number based on the order in which I joined."
- Homer
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Hi all,
If I want to run the query today(12/2/2017) then my data should be inbetween 2016 January 1st to December 31st --I don't want to hard code dates.
if I want to run the query on jan 1st 2018 or in any day in 2018 then my data should be inbetween 2017 January 1st to 2017 December 31st.
if I want to run the query in 2019 then my data should be inbetween 2018 January 1st to 2018 December 31st.
how to write query, please advice.
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- Obtain current date -> obtain "current year" -> obtain ("current year" - 1)
- Make the dates for "between": [("current year" - 1)-01-01] and [("current year" - 1)-12-31]
- use them in your query.
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WHERE YEAR([date_column]) = YEAR(DATEADD(yy,-1,getdate()))
=========================================================
I'm an optoholic - my glass is always half full of vodka.
=========================================================
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Your requirements are bad. (I would presume and hope that they were made up by a teacher.)
The second two requirements can be expressed as
Req: Given today's date run a query that spans the 'prior' year based on that date.
The first requirement is incompatible with that and it is impossible to implement without other input data. One way to do that is in fact to hard code 2017 as a switch value. The second way is to presume that the target table has no data before 2017. However to implement that latter rule would mean that EVERY query would need to do a second query to determine that no data existed.
Not to mention that for users it would be confusing at least over time.
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I'm struggling with understanding, what I think are difference between the Types used in .NET framework and the OLE DB Data Types used in Access, Excel, etc.
For example:
Type indicator OLE DB Name .Net Type Description
DBTYPE_UI8 BigInt Int64 64-bit signed integer
What's does Int64 map to in C#? Am I using the correct terminology?
It's difficult to look up an answer to a question when you don't know what something is called.
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You may be on to something here...extending the timeout. It was the one thing I didn't try. Still, it's strange that their app server is able to connect instantly...maybe a hosts file entry???
This has been confirmed on two end user workstations...reports back that the server can't be found or having trouble locating server, depending on which provider is in play. I will give this a shot tomorrow...also checking into remote app as a possible solution for them.
