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sorry, Yes what you said was correct. Is there any extensibility?
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can we use c# for web development as well....?
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ajhhuer wrote: can we use c# for web development as well....?
google, ask, yahoo, livesearch. Any of these ringing a bell with you at all?
Deja View - the feeling that you've seen this post before.
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Ummm, yes, you can.
"Real programmers just throw a bunch of 1s and 0s at the computer to see what sticks" - Pete O'Hanlon
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Ok, I have a class with say 4 string value properties. In an old version of the .dll this class is serialized into an arraylist using the following methodology
ArrayList list = new ArrayList();
foreach(MyClass class in MyClassCollection)
{
List.add(new object[]{class.Property1,class.Property2,class.Property3,class.Property4};
}
Then the ArrayList would be serialized.
When used it would be Deserialized into an ArrayList and then a new object would be instantiated for each object array in the arraylist. Are You Following me?
Now here is my problem, I have been tasked with writing a newer version of the software in VS.net C# 2005. I cannot deserialize the ArrayList of string arrays because it tells me that it cannot find the .dll that this ArrayList was origionally serialized from, even though only string values were put into the ArrayList when it was serialized. Any help or am I gonna have to write a convertor to convert the files to the newer version.
"All of us who served in one war or another know very well that all wars are the glory and the agony of the young."
Gerald Ford
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http://msdn.microsoft.com/msdnmag/issues/02/04/net/[^]
"Finally, when serializing an object, the full name of the type and the name of the type's defining assembly are written to the byte stream."
I strongly suggest you do some reading on .NET Serialization. That article might be as good a place to start as any.
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Considering that the application that serialized the object is not the .dll and the values that went into the arraylist are the string values of the .dll class and not the class itself being serialized why would it write the typestring and type into the stream. I can see if you are serializing an object but not an array of strings.
"All of us who served in one war or another know very well that all wars are the glory and the agony of the young."
Gerald Ford
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Sautin.net wrote: because it tells me that it cannot find the .dll that this ArrayList was origionally serialized from,
Sautin.net wrote: Considering that the application that serialized the object is not the .dll and the values that went into the arraylist are the string values of the .dll class and not the class itself being serialized why would it write the typestring and type into the stream. I can see if you are serializing an object but not an array of strings.
At some point you did serialize an object, you have to, period, that's how it works.
"Finally, when serializing an object, the full name of the type and the name of the type's defining assembly are written to the byte stream."
Your EXE is an assembly. If the error message is citing the DLL name, you have not stated so, then something from that DLL must have been serialized. If the error message is generic "can't find the source DLL" it might be misleading by assuming a DLL when in fact the source assembly was an EXE.
Regardless, the information is in the data and the assembly doesn't exist in your current solution. That is all that is significant here, correct? So now you need to figure out what you can and want to do about it.
In the future you might consider using best practices (isolation / "Separation of Concerns" - Dykstra ) and design patterns like MVC which could assist in avoiding tightly coupled issues.
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Problem Solved Thank you very much, that article saved my day bigtime.
"All of us who served in one war or another know very well that all wars are the glory and the agony of the young."
Gerald Ford
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You are welcome 
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Hey all,
I want to update single columns on a table. I know how to do it in SQL itself but i want to update it from inside a c# code, where i have no experience at all, i mean working with databases from C#. So far i know how to read the data from an specific table. However this code:
try
{
SqlCon = new SqlConnection(ConnString);
SqlCmd = new SqlCommand();
SqlCmd.CommandText = "select votos_recibidos from party where Name_Party ='" + party + "'";
SqlCmd.Connection = SqlCon;
SqlCon.Open();
dataReader = SqlCmd.ExecuteReader();
//reading the current value of the column
int temp = dataReader.GetInt32(0);//this is where the exception occurs
temp = temp+1;//add 1 to the current value
SqlCmd.CommandText = "update Party set Votos_recibidos ="+temp+"where Name_Party ='"+party+"'";
dataReader = SqlCmd.ExecuteReader();
dataReader.Close();
SqlCon.Close();
}
catch (SqlException SqE)
{
System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(SqE.Message);
}
But this gives me the next exception:
"Invalid attempt to read when no data is present."
But that column takes not null and it has a value of 0 first but then i manually changed to 1, just in case.
Any tip of what i am doing wrong because i know the statement has no problem itself. Maybe i am just doing it wrong in c#.
thanks,
Luis E Tineo S
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For updates, try doing SqlCmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
You don't have to do anything with data readers when you do that.
Hogan
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Thanks,
Let me start researching to know how to use it...
Luis E Tineo S
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kingletas wrote: SqlCmd.CommandText = "select votos_recibidos from party where Name_Party ='" + party + "'";
Take a look this line.. What is the value for the variable called "party"?? maybe. the party name that you are looking for doesn't exist in the database that's why it return row 0.. So, it causes the error when you are accessing like that .GetInt32(0)..
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hey Michael thanks for replying,
Party is a string representing the name of a party.
the method look like this:
public bool UpdateParty(string party)
{
....
}
It would be the same as "Select votos_recibidos from party where name_party = 'Luis Party'".
however i wondering why is throwing that exception if the table contains data, could it be the way i am passing party to the Sql Command?
Luis E Tineo S
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Try like that..
try {<br />
SqlCon = new SqlConnection(ConnString);<br />
SqlCon.Open();<br />
<br />
SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter();<br />
da.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand();<br />
<br />
da.SelectCommand.CommandText = "select votos_recibidos from party where Name_Party ='" + party + "'";<br />
da.SelectCommand.Connection = SqlCon;<br />
<br />
DataSet ds = new DataSet();<br />
<br />
da.Fill(ds);<br />
<br />
if (ds.Tables.Count > 0) {<br />
if (ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 0) {<br />
int temp = (int)ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][0];<br />
temp = temp + 1;
<br />
SqlCmd.CommandText = "update Party set Votos_recibidos =" + temp + "where Name_Party ='" + party + "'";<br />
dataReader = SqlCmd.ExecuteReader();<br />
<br />
dataReader.Close();<br />
SqlCon.Close();<br />
}<br />
else {<br />
System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(" [ " + party + " ] doesn't exist.");<br />
}<br />
}<br />
P.S: I typed this code just like that without compiling so it may contains small issues..
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Michael thank you soooooo muchhhhh!!!!
As you said there were a few small issues but not with your code but me typing it correctly and using the right SqlCommand.
I think from this example i can really learn how to manipulate databases from c# thank you soooo much!!!
Luis E Tineo S
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Hi,
I've come up with a solution of disabling .NET security to prevent from throwing weird exceptions when using HttpWebRequest class. All I need to do is to put this xml code :
<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?>
<configuration>
<system.net>
<settings>
<httpWebRequest useUnsafeHeaderParsing="true" />
</settings>
</system.net>
</configuration>
into config file of my Win app (application.exe.config file).
1. Is there a way to do this from inside the code programaticly?
2. Is there something similar for Ftp WebRequest (which is throwing weird errors too and I have a feeling that it is about security too... ?
thanx
zilo
-- modified at 11:32 Wednesday 7th November, 2007
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You'r the man )
zilo
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No, Google's the Man. Fight the Man!!!! 
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I'm developing a WinForm using C# and VS2005. I was wonder if it is possible to open up a childForm1 in maximize window of MDIparent and launch childForm2 on top of childForm1, but still keep childForm1 as MAXIMIZE.
Here's a big picture.
childForm1 > childForm2 (childForm1 Maximize and childForm2 on top)
What I'm looking for is the code to keep childForm1 maximize and childForm2 launch on top.
Please please please please please......advice!!!!
Thank you!
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I don't believe it is possible to have a 'non-maximised' child form over the top of a maximised child form.
Setting TopLevel to true throws an error so the only way I can see for you to do it is to resize the child form to the size of the Mdi area (not maximised)... This will allow you to have the other child form(s) over the top of it.
You may need to bring the other forms 'tofront' (.BringToFront) if the background form is clicked otherwise all front forms will be hidden.
Alternatively... you can put other controls (buttons, labels etc) directly onto a MdiParent form: so if you only want one 'maximised' form... don't actually make it a form, make it a panel (for example) and put all other controls into this. The panel will not be 'allowed' to come forward as it is part of the MdiForm background.
Hope this helps.
Matthew Butler
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